"The antecedent, 'the Linux-based 901s,' are not selling anything. They are being sold, and they have been sold out."
FIXED: The antecedent, "the Linux-based 901s," is not selling...
Hmmm, that raises an interesting question. In French, we always learned that the object closest to the operating verb determines the conjugation of the verb. I am unsure, however, if that rule hold true in standard American or British English. "Are" would be correct according to French grammar rules, but "is" appears to be the more accepted by angloglots. Good thing I didn't major in English/Journalism.
Ok, let's look at this from a more precise perspective.
In "the products have sold out," "sold out" functions as a verb, because "have" can only be a helping verb (if "have" served as the verb, the meaning of the phrase changes to "the products possess sold out"). "Sold out" in the context of the article should mean "a state of inadequate supply." Thus, "sold out" MUST be a predicate adjective, a adjective which modifies the subject by relaying the subject's state or condition.
"Have" cannot be used to express being ("You have wrong" vs. "I am right"), so "are" or another "to be" verb must be placed before "sold out."
Cliffs: •"Have sold out" can only be used to mean "one has run out out supply (ambiguous item) or "one has forgone his dignity in order to succeed." Its use can never mean "an item is sold out." •"Have sold out (of stock)" is still incorrect, because the object (the stocked item) cannot also serve as the subject. •American college student's English > British (supposedly) Consultant
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"harder to find simply because their sold out" THEY'RE.
+1
Thanks for fixing it, Donald. :)
"they've" not "they're"...
I assume Asus sold out of products, but aren't morally sold out (yet).
@ LondonConsultant
"...which seems to suggest that _the Linux-based 901s_ are harder to find simply because _they're_ sold out..."
The antecedent, "the Linux-based 901s," are not selling anything. They are being sold, and they have been sold out.
Have been = are/were
Have =/= were.
I hope you aren't an literary consultant.
"The antecedent, 'the Linux-based 901s,' are not selling anything. They are being sold, and they have been sold out."
FIXED: The antecedent, "the Linux-based 901s," is not selling...
Hmmm, that raises an interesting question. In French, we always learned that the object closest to the operating verb determines the conjugation of the verb. I am unsure, however, if that rule hold true in standard American or British English. "Are" would be correct according to French grammar rules, but "is" appears to be the more accepted by angloglots. Good thing I didn't major in English/Journalism.
To make this simple: "the products HAVE sold out" is correct usage; "the products ARE sold out" is incorrect usage.
Literary consultancy available at 80% discount on my usual PRINCE2 rates...
It is THEY ARE. Not their...their is possessive ASUS doesnt doesn't own "Sold Out"....take an English Class mate...
Ok, let's look at this from a more precise perspective.
In "the products have sold out," "sold out" functions as a verb, because "have" can only be a helping verb (if "have" served as the verb, the meaning of the phrase changes to "the products possess sold out"). "Sold out" in the context of the article should mean "a state of inadequate supply." Thus, "sold out" MUST be a predicate adjective, a adjective which modifies the subject by relaying the subject's state or condition.
"Have" cannot be used to express being ("You have wrong" vs. "I am right"), so "are" or another "to be" verb must be placed before "sold out."
Cliffs:
•"Have sold out" can only be used to mean "one has run out out supply (ambiguous item) or "one has forgone his dignity in order to succeed." Its use can never mean "an item is sold out."
•"Have sold out (of stock)" is still incorrect, because the object (the stocked item) cannot also serve as the subject.
•American college student's English > British (supposedly) Consultant